Apologies in advance for the probably simple question, but I'm trying to get my head around MFA. Can you confirm if my rudimentary understanding is correct?
If enabled, MFA will be prompted if a user logs in to the web interface or Desktop Application.
MFA will not be prompted if a user logs in to a physical phone.
Presumably this is because the phone is already registered in the system and the user is already authorised to log into that phone.
I'm just trying to understand what happens if we enable MFA for clients. It would be a pain to test this as we have an SBC on a site where conditional access means we are not prompted for MFA when in the office. We don't have any home users that use physical phones (so we would have to set up a temporary SBC just to test one of our phones on a remote site). Some of our clients either have no static IP (so we can't ensure conditional access policies don't prompt for MFA) or have users with physical phones at home.
If enabled, MFA will be prompted if a user logs in to the web interface or Desktop Application.
MFA will not be prompted if a user logs in to a physical phone.
Presumably this is because the phone is already registered in the system and the user is already authorised to log into that phone.
I'm just trying to understand what happens if we enable MFA for clients. It would be a pain to test this as we have an SBC on a site where conditional access means we are not prompted for MFA when in the office. We don't have any home users that use physical phones (so we would have to set up a temporary SBC just to test one of our phones on a remote site). Some of our clients either have no static IP (so we can't ensure conditional access policies don't prompt for MFA) or have users with physical phones at home.
